How do they prove this?
$$(p\to q)\land[\neg q\land(r\lor\neg q)]\equiv\neg q\land\neg p$$
HINT: One of the absorption laws tells you that $\neg q\land(r\lor\neg q)\equiv\neg q$, so the lefthand side is equivalent to
$$(p\to q)\land\neg q\;.$$
Now use the fact that $p\to q$ is equivalent to $\neg p\lor q$, apply a distributive law, and do a little simplifying.
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HINT: One of the absorption laws tells you that $\neg q\land(r\lor\neg q)\equiv\neg q$, so the lefthand side is equivalent to
$$(p\to q)\land\neg q\;.$$
Now use the fact that $p\to q$ is equivalent to $\neg p\lor q$, apply a distributive law, and do a little simplifying.