Consider the stereographic projection chart on $S^2$ which doesn't include the north pole $$(X,Y)=\varphi(x,y,z)=\left(\frac{x}{1-z}, \frac{y}{1-z}\right).$$
I want to pull back the 1-form $\omega = \frac{-ydx+xdy}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}$ to $S^2$ from $\mathbb{R}^2$ to $S^2$ but I am not sure about a step in the calculation. The definition of pullback of a form under a smooth map $\varphi $ is
$$\varphi^* \omega=(f \circ \varphi) d\left(X \circ \varphi\right)+(g \circ \varphi) d\left(Y \circ \varphi\right)$$
Then,
$$ \begin{aligned} &\varphi^*\omega =\frac{\frac{-y}{1-z}}{\sqrt{\frac{x^2}{(1-z)^2}+\frac{y^2}{(1-z)^2}}} d\left(X \circ \varphi\right)+\frac{x}{\sqrt{\frac{x^2}{(1-z)^2}+\frac{y^2}{(1-z)^2}}} d\left(Y \circ \varphi\right) \\ & =\frac{-y}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} d(X \circ \varphi)+\frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} d(Y \circ \varphi) \\ & \end{aligned} $$
How do I compute $d(X\circ \varphi)$ and $d(Y\circ \varphi)$. Intuitively, this feels like some sort of product rule would have to occur.
$$d\frac{x}{1-z} = \frac{1}{1-z}dx + \frac{x}{(1-z)^2}dz$$ $$d\frac{y}{1-z} = \frac{1}{1-z}dy + \frac{y}{(1-z)^2}dz$$
Then
$$\phi^*\omega = \frac{-y}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}\left[\frac{1}{1-z}dx + \frac{x}{(1-z)^2}dz\right] + \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}\left[\frac{1}{1-z}dy + \frac{y}{(1-z)^2}dz\right]$$ In the end I should get some 1-form on $S^2$. Is this calculation correct?
Thank you!
EDIT:
Is it actaully the case that if I wanted to pull this back onto $S^2$, what I shuold really do is just consider the map $F:(X,Y)\mapsto (x,y)$ then the pullback will just be
$$F^*\omega = \frac{-YdX+XdY}{\sqrt{X^2+Y^2}}$$
where the upper case $X$ and $Y$ are in stereographic coordinates? Is it this easy?
To answer your question in coordinates if we have $f:U \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$, for $U \subset\mathbb{R}^n$ and $U$ open. : $$df=\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}dx_i$$