By replacing $x=r\cos(a)$ and $y = r\sin(a)$ we get $f(x,y)$ as $r\cos^2 a\sin a$, but $r$ can be any no. Belongs to $\mathbb R$ then how come function is bounded. As we can choose $r$ any value and hence it should be unbounded.
Please correct me with explanation.
It's not bounded.
Because for $x\neq0$ we have $$f(x,x)=\frac{x}{2}$$