Let $X_n, n = 0, 1, 2, . . .$ denote an unbiased Normal Random Walk. $X_0 = 10$, and $X_{n+1} = X_n + Y_{n+1}$, with $\{Y_n\}$ are i.i.d. $N(0, 1)$.
Then how can I show that:
A) $M_n = X_n^2-n$ is a martingale
Find the value of:
B) $\mathbb{E}M_{20}$
Does the answer lie in reformulation $X_n = X_{n+1} - Y_{n+1}$ ?
And then:
$$X_n = X_{n+1} - Y_{n+1} \implies X_n^2 = (X_{n+1})^2 - 2X_{n+1}Y_{n+1} + (Y_{n+1})^2$$
And then we proceed with
$$\mathbb{E}[(X_{n+1})^2 - 2X_{n+1}Y_{n+1} + (Y_{n+1})^2 -n| \mathcal{F}_s], s \leq n+1$$
$$\mathbb{E}[(X_{n+1})^2 | \mathcal{F}_s] - 2\mathbb{E}[X_{n+1}Y_{n+1}|\mathcal{F}_s] + \mathbb{E}[(Y_{n+1})^2|\mathcal{F}_s] - \mathbb{E}[n | \mathcal{F}_s]$$
Is this right so far? if not, where I have I made a mistake, and how should I proceed?
For $s\le n$, $$\mathbb{E}(M_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_s)=\mathbb{E}((X_n+Y_{n+1})^2-(n+1)\mid \mathcal{F}_s)\\=X_n^2+2X_n\mathbb{E}(Y_{n+1})+\mathbb{E}(Y_{n+1}^2)-(n+1)\\=X_n^2-n=M_n$$ the steps have used the fact that $Y_n$ is an i.i.d. $\mathcal{N}(0,1)$ sequence. The possible mistake that you are making in your approach is the one rightly pointed out by @saz in the comments.
For part (B) $$\mathbb{E}M_n=\mathbb{E}X_n^2-n$$ Note that $X_n=\sum_{i=1}^n Y_i+X_0\implies \mathbb{E}X_n^2=n+X_0^2\implies \mathbb{E}M_n=X_0^2$