This is for homework, so please hints only.
Also I know that there are questions similar to this one, but those questions use a different definition of totally bounded.
The definition my book uses for totally bounded is:
A metric space $X$ is totally bound if $\forall \epsilon > 0$ there is a finite subset $A \subset X$ such that $X = \bigcup_{a \in A} S_{\epsilon}(a)$, where $S_r(x_0) = \{x \in X: d(x,x_0) < r\}$. The difference here is that other questions only require containment, not equality.
The question I have to answer is:
Let $X$ be a metric space, show that $A \subset X$ is totally bounded $\iff$ $\bar{A}$ is totally bounded.
I have shown that if $A$ is totally bounded then you can construct a cover in the that contains $\bar{A}$. My professor has said that I may need to show that $\forall \epsilon \exists \delta$ such that there exists a finite subset $C \subset \bar{A}$ such that $\bar{A} = \bigcup_{c \in C} S_{\delta}(c)$. But I'm not sure how to proceed.
I would really appreciate any help you can offer.
Thank you.
Let $C$ be a finite cover of $A$ by balls of radius $r/3$. Assume $x \in \bar A$. Thus there exists $y \in A \cap B(x,r/3)$ and some $B(a,r/3)$ in $C$ with $y \in B(a,r/3)$. Show $x \in B(a,r)$. Conclude $\{ B(a,r) : B(a,r/3) \in C \}$ is a finite cover of $\overline A$.