One of my textbook solutions shows why $p \oplus p$ is a contradiction with something like these steps:
$$\begin{align*}p \oplus p &\quad& {}\\ (p \vee p) \wedge \lnot(p \wedge p) & & \text{by definition} \\ p \wedge \lnot p & & \text{ by the identity laws}\end{align*}$$
The above is clearly a contradiction.
I don’t understand how they get from the second line to the third. From what I understand, the identity law is that $p \vee T$ is equivalent to $p,$ but I don’t see how this gets us from line 2 to line 3.
Formally, if you aren't able to say $p \wedge p = p,$ then maybe you know that $\wedge$ and $\vee$ distribute over each other? In that case, you could see $$p \wedge p \equiv (p \vee F) \wedge (p \vee F) \equiv p \vee (F \wedge F) \equiv p \vee F \equiv p$$