My attempt: $0$ is clearly a singularity since $f$ is unbounded as $z\rightarrow 0$.
Using Taylor expansion we see that $\sin(\frac{1}{z})= -\frac{1}{z} + \frac{1}{3!z^3} - \frac{1}{5!z^5}+\dots=\frac{1}{z}[-1 + \frac{1}{3!z^2} - \frac{1}{5!z^4}+\dots] $ so that as $z\rightarrow 0$ we have $f(z)$ is unbounded and therefore $0$ is not a removable singularity.
My question: How do we know that this is not a pole and hence it is an essential singularity. If I check out $1/f$ nothing really simplifies and it's just $1$ over a messy expansion. I can see that the polynomial on the bottom will diverge faster than the linear $z$ will converge to $0$ on the top so that $1/f$ diverges so it can't be a pole, but this doesn't seem rigorous enough.
Are there any better ways to see this, or to think about this problem?
If it was a pole, then this would be valid: $\lim_{z\to 0}\sin\left(\frac{1}{z}\right)=\infty$.
Then, for every sequence $z_n\to0$ ($n\to\infty$) we would have $\lim_{n\to\infty}\sin\left(\frac{1}{z_n}\right)=\infty$.
However - compare that with $z_n=\frac{1}{\frac{\pi}{2}+n\pi}\to 0$ and $\sin\left(\frac{1}{z_n}\right)=(-1)^n$.