My textbook says to do the following steps to simplify the $\sqrt{3/2}$:
$\sqrt{3/2}=\sqrt{((3/2)\times (2/2))} =\sqrt{6/4} = \sqrt{6}/\sqrt{4}=\sqrt{6}/2.$
However, if the fourth step is valid (1. please explain why and 2. I specifically mean where you "split" the square root into two parts), then why can't you simply do:
$\sqrt{3/2}=\sqrt{3}/\sqrt{2}$?
Why wouldn't that be valid?
My point is, are the two fractions equivalent?
It is true that $\sqrt{3/2} $ is equal to $\sqrt{3}/\sqrt{2}$.
However, the point of the transformations you give it to have a denominator without root.
More generally, for positive $a,b$ it is always true that $\sqrt{ab} = \sqrt{a}\sqrt{b}$ and $\sqrt{a/b}=\sqrt{a}/ \sqrt{b}$.
To see that note $(\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b})^2 =(\sqrt{a})^2(\sqrt{b})^2 =ab$, thus $\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b}$ is the square-root of $ab$, that is it is $\sqrt{ab}$. And likewise for the second.