I was wondering how to solve an equation where there is a fraction with $\sin^2(\theta)$ and $\cos^2(\theta)$ on top and bottom. The specific equation i am having a problem with is:
$\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-3\cos^2(\theta)+1}{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}\equiv2$
My original idea was to use $\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)\equiv1$ and turn $\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-3\cos^2(\theta)+1}{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}\equiv2$ into $\frac{4\sin^2(\theta)-2}{2\sin^2(\theta)-1}\equiv2$ but that does not work as you just get to $1\equiv1$.
Then I tried turning it into $\frac{4\sin^2(\theta)-2}{1-2\cos^2(\theta)}\equiv2$ but then I get stuck at $\frac{4\sin^2(\theta)}{4-2\cos^2(\theta)}\equiv1$
I have the thought that you will have to use $\frac{\sin(\theta)}{\cos(\theta)} = \tan(\theta)$ but I dont know how to get there.
In general how do you solve equations like these. Thanks very much for any help.
You can proceed and solve question step by step using Trignometric identities.
Let's take left hand side: $\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-3\cos^2(\theta)+1}{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}$
$=\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-3\cos^2(\theta)+\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}$ (Since ${\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)}$=1)
$=\frac{2(\sin^2(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta))}{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}$
$=2=$Right hand side
Note: Things are not complicate. We tend to make it. ;-)