given the functional infinite equation
$$ g(x)= \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}f(\frac{x}{n})log(n) $$
the function $ g(x) $ is know
if the log term wasn't there i know the solution but can i really invert this equation and obtain $ f(x) $ ?
thanks
Applying the Mellin transform to both sites i get ·$ G(s)= -\zeta ' (s)F(s) $
what can i do which math should i use ?