I've got the following question that I have very little idea on how to approach proving:

I was wondering if someone could send some hints/starter lines so that I actually know where this proof is headed? I'm unsure what exactly we're meant to do here :S
Sketch:
One of the ways that integrability of functions $f:[a,b]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ is determined is as follows:
Let $f^+(x)=\begin{cases}f(x)&f(x)>0\\0&f(x)\leq 0\end{cases}$ and $f^-(x)=\begin{cases}-f(x)&f(x)<0\\0&f(x)\geq 0\end{cases}$
Then, we can define $f$ to be integrable iff both $f^+$ and $f^-$ are integrable. Then we define $$ \int_a^b f(x)dx=\int_a^bf^+(x)dx-\int_a^bf^-(x)dx. $$
In the case of $|f|=f^++f^-$, we have $$ \int_a^b |f(x)|dx=\int_a^bf^+(x)dx+\int_a^bf^-(x)dx $$
From here, since $\int_a^bf^+(x)dx$ and $\int_a^bf^-(x)dx$ are both positive (as the functions are positive), you can get the necessary inequalities directly.