Let $f \in C_{c}^{\infty}(\mathbb R)$ and I have proven that:
$\vert \vert \hat{f} \vert \vert_{\infty}\leq\vert \vert f\vert\vert_{1}, (1)$
Then I am told to use the hint that:
$\hat{f}(\xi)=-\frac{1}{i \xi}\int (-i \xi) e^{-i \xi x}f(x)dx$
$\lim\limits_{\vert \xi\vert \to \infty}\hat{f}(\xi)=0$
I can see that I need find an appropriate bound and $(1)$ seems useful and then I'd just let $\vert \xi\vert \to \infty$ but I am struggling to find the upper bound in terms of $\vert \vert f\vert\vert_{1}$. How am I supposed to treat the term $(-i \xi) e^{-i \xi x}$?
They want you to integrate by parts. Try to see if that helps; I've added a spoiler for you below, if you need it.