This is no homework, it's for exam practice.
Show that $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{1}{x}ln(1+ax) = a$
where $a \in \mathbb{R}\setminus \left \{ 0 \right \}$ is chosen definitely / fixed (whatever this means...?) and $c = \frac{1}{a}$
Hint: Use the difference quotient.
So the difference quotient is defined like this:
$\lim_{x\rightarrow x_{0}}\frac{f(x)-f(x_{0})}{x-x_{0}}= f'(x)$
But now, what is my $x_{0}$? I think $x_{0} = 0$.
The problem is if I try to use the difference quotient then it will not work for zero because I will have to divide through it since there is a $\frac{1}{x}$...
And using L'Hôpital won't work sadly because the criteria isn't fulfilled, we got $\frac{something}{0}$.
So how would I use the difference quotient on this and how do I know how I have to choose my $x_{0}$ if it hasn't been set by the teacher? I've always thought you choose a value where the function isn't defined, is that true?
I don't expect a solution but some answers to some of my questions would be very useful for me.
Let $f(x)=\ln(1+ax)$ and $x_0=0$ in the difference quotient. Then $$\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\frac{\ln(1+ax)-\ln(1+a(0))}{x-0}=\frac{1}{x}\ln(1+ax).$$
This tells you that the limit you want is just $f'(0)$.
Proving the limit in this way (or using L'Hospital's rule as in the other answer) is dishonest/circular because you need to know the value of the limit to calculate $f'$.