I am trying to prove the following:
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. An intersection of finitely many open subsets of $X$ is open.
The following is my attempt:
Let $x \in \bigcap_{i=1}^n U_i$ be arbitrary, where $U_i$'s are open subsets in $X$, for each $i=1,2,3,\ldots,n-1,n.$
Since $x \in \bigcap_{i=1}^n U_i$, $x \in U_i$ for all $i=1,2,3, \ldots,n-1,n.$
Because all $U_i$'s are open, for each $i,$ there exists $\epsilon_i>0$ such that $B_{\epsilon_i}(x) \subseteq U_i.$
Let $\epsilon = \min\{\epsilon_1, \epsilon_2, \epsilon_3, \ldots , \epsilon_{n-1}, \epsilon_n\}.$
Then $B_\epsilon(x)\subseteq B_{\epsilon_i}(x)$ for all $i=1,2,3, \ldots,n-1,n.$
Question:
I am not quite sure of how to finish the proof, by showing that $B_\epsilon(x) \subseteq \bigcap_{i=1}^n U_i.$
My reasoning for the ending of the proof:
Intuitively, it makes sense that $B_\epsilon(x) \subseteq \bigcap_{i=1}^n U_i$, since the open ball centred at $x$, with radius $\epsilon$ contains all points that are only in all of the sets $B_{\epsilon_1}(x),\,B_{\epsilon_2}(x),\,B_{\epsilon_3}(x),\ldots,\,B_{\epsilon_{n-1}}(x)$ and $\,B_{\epsilon_n}(x).$
Would it be correct in writing \begin{equation*} B_{\epsilon}(x) = \bigcap_{i=1}^n B_{\epsilon_i}(x)? \end{equation*}
Then would it be the case that $$B_{\epsilon}(x) =\bigcap_{i=1}^n B_{\epsilon_i}(x) \subseteq \bigcap_{i=1}^nU_i,$$
therefore $\bigcap_{i=1}^nU_i$ is open?
The proof consists in exhibiting an open ball that is included in the intersection (around every point).
For every set you know that you can find a suitable ball. Then the ball with minimum radius is the intersection of all these balls.
Hence the minimal ball is included in every ball, hence in every set, thus in their intersection.
The proof will not work with infinitely many sets, because then the minimum radius may fail to be positive.