Let $(X, \tau)$ be a topological space, $U,V\subseteq X$ any subsets of $X$ .
Let $I(A)$ denotes a interior of subset $A$ and $C(A)$ denotes closure of subset $A$.
It is clear that $IC(U\cap V)\subseteq IC(U)\cap IC(V)$
Because $U\cap V\subseteq U$ and $U\cap V\subseteq U$
then $C(U\cap V)\subseteq C(U)$ and $C(U\cap V)\subseteq C(V)$;
then $IC(U\cap V)\subseteq IC(U)$ and $IC(U\cap V)\subseteq IC(V)$ ;
then $IC(U\cap V)\subseteq IC(U)\cap C(V)$.
In terms of modal logic $S4: \Box \Diamond(\Box p\wedge \Box q)\rightarrow\Box\Diamond \Box p\wedge \Box \Diamond \Box q$
Now let $U,V\in \tau$ aere two open sets of $X$.
Is it true another direction: $IC(U)\cap IC(V)\subseteq IC(U\cap V)$? (In terms of modal logic $S4: \Box\Diamond \Box p\wedge \Box \Diamond \Box q\rightarrow \Box \Diamond(\Box p\wedge \Box q)$)
If it is, what will be the proof of this?
If it isn't what is counterexamlpe of this?
It is true more general fact.
Proposition. If $U$ is open and $A$ an arbitrary subset of $X$, then $IC(U)\cap IC(A)\subseteq IC(U\cap A)$.