If $0<x<1$ and $x$ is rational, does $2^x$ have to be irrational? Why? Also, if $2^x$ is rational, and $0<x<1$ and $x$ is rational, does $x$ have to be irrational? (i.e. contrapositive of the first statement)
I believe a better (and easier) way would be to prove the latter statement and then the former one would be proven as well (due to contra-positivity), however I was unable to prove that anyway.
Assume that $a,b,p,q\in\Bbb N$ and $\gcd(p,q)=1$. If $2^{p/q}=\frac ab$ then $2^pb^q=a^q$.
Let's call, for any natural $n$, $v(n)$ the greatest natural $r$ such that $2^r$ divides $n$.
So $v(2^pb^q)=v(a^q)$, and $p+qv(b)=qv(a)$. Then $p$ is a multiple of $q$. Since $p$ and $q$ are coprime, $q=1$.