For $x>1$, then $$2\tan^{-1} x = \pi -2\sin^{-1} \frac{2x}{1+x^2}$$
For $x<-1$
$$2\tan^{-1} x =-\pi -2\sin^{-1} \frac{2x}{1+x^2}$$
So $x\in (-\infty, -1) \cup (1, \infty)$
But the given answer is only $(1,\infty)$
Is there any specific reason why we don’t consider the left part, or is it just a mistake?
Your answer is correct! It's vividly seen in the graph below: