Consider $a$ and $b$, both positive integers. Is it true that $a^a$ divides $b^b$ implies $a$ divides $b$?
I can't seem to figure out this proof. My intuition is to use the fundamental theorem of arithmetic to break each number into its prime components, however I haven't been able to come up with a solution. Any help would be appreciated.
This is not true in general. The fact that $4^4$ divides $10^{10}$ would be the smallest counterexample, I think.
So why does the proposition fail to hold? For any integer $n$, $\operatorname{rad}(n)$ (for "radical") is the number with the same primes in its prime factorisation as $n$, but all powers are $1$. For instance, $\operatorname{rad}(12) = 6$ and $\operatorname{rad}(98) = 14$. Then we do have "$a^a$ divides $b^b$ implies that $\operatorname{rad}(a)$ divides $\operatorname{rad}(b)$", i.e. every prime that appears in the prime factorisation of $a$ appears in the prime factorisation of $b$. However, we have no way of controlling, for any given of those primes, that the power of that prime is smaller in $a$ than in $b$. We just know that for any given of those primes, $a$ times its exponent in $a$ is less than $b$ times its exponent in $b$. Thus, if $b$ is large enough, and just contains the right primes, we get $a^a$ divides $b^b$, no matter how many times those primes divide $b$.