If $a$ and $b$ are consecutive integers, prove that $a^2 + b^2 + a^2b^2$ is a perfect square.

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Problem is as stated in the title. Source is Larson's 'Problem Solving through Problems'. I've tried all kinds of factorizations with this trying to get it to the form $$k^2l^2$$ but nothing's clicking. I tried Bézout but the same expression can be written as $$a^2 + (a^2 + 1)(a+1)^2$$ which would imply that there is no real root. Would really appreciate some help, thanks.

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$$p^2+(p+1)^2+\{p(p+1)\}^2 =p^4+2p^3+3p^2+2p+1 =(p^2+p+1)^2$$


Alternatively,

$$p^2+(p+1)^2+\{p(p+1)\}^2 =(\underbrace{p^2+p})^2+2(\underbrace{p^2+p})+1=?$$

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$$a^2+b^2+a^2b^2=(a-b)^2+2ab+a^2b^2=1+2ab+a^2b^2=(1+ab)^2$$

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If $a=b-1$ then square and rearrange to obtain $a^2+2b=b^2+1$. Then $$a^2+b^2 +a^2b^2=b^2+a^2(b^2+1)=b^2+a^2(a^2+2b)=(a^2+b)^2.$$

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Since the expression is symmetric in $a$ and $b$, it is not restrictive to assume $b=a+1$, so $$ a^2+b^2+a^2b^2= a^2+(a+1)^2+a^2(a+1)^2= a^4+2a^3+3a^2+2a+1 $$ If you don't see an easy factorization, note that for $a=0$ the statement is clear; for $a\ne0$ we can write $$ a^4+2a^3+3a^2+2a+1 = a^2\left(a^2+\frac{1}{a^2}+2a+\frac{2}{a}+3\right) $$ Now remember that $$ a^2+\frac{1}{a^2}=\left(a+\frac{1}{a}\right)^2-2 $$ so the expression becomes $$ a^2\left(\left(a+\frac{1}{a}\right)^2+2\left(a+\frac{1}{a}\right)+1\right)= a^2\left(\left(a+\frac{1}{a}\right)+1\right)^2=(a^2+a+1)^2 $$

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Let $p=\frac{a+b}{2}$, that is if $a<b$, $p=(2a+1)/2$. \begin{align}(p-\frac{1}{2})^2+(p+\frac12)^2+(p-\frac12)^2(p+\frac12)^2&=(2p^2+\frac12)+(p^2-\frac14)^2\\ &=p^4+\frac32 p^2+\frac{9}{16}\\ &=(p^2+\frac{3}{4})^2 \end{align}

since $p^2=\frac{4a^2+4a+1}{4}$,

$$p^2+\frac{3}{4}=a^2+a+1.$$

Hence, $$a^2+b^2+a^2b^2=(a^2+a+1)^2$$

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Note that $a^2+b^2+a^2b^2 = (a^2+1)(b^2+1)-1$

Then this becomes a special case of the Brahmagupta-Fibonacci identity:

$ (x^2+y^2)(z^2+w^2) = (xz+yw)^2+(xw-yz)^2 $

Take $x = a, y = 1, z=b, w = 1$ and you get:

$ (a^2+1)(b^2+1) = (ab+1)^2+(a-b)^2 = (a^2+a+1)^2+1 $

since $b = a+1$.