If you know that f(g(x)) AND f(x) are one-to-one/injective, then does that mean that g(x) is one-to-one/injective? Why or why not?
Thanks guys.
2026-03-27 16:21:50.1774628510
If a composition function is one-to-one, does that imply its component is also one-to-one?
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