As the title goes, if a random variable is defined over a finite support (say [0,1]), is its variance always finite? If not, can anyone help give a counterexample?
2026-03-31 18:26:16.1774981576
If a random variable is defined over a finite support (say [0,1]), must its variance be finite?
68 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in PROBABILITY
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