Theory of computation question. since all the automatas we have studied are finite then why do we convert to DFAs while proving any theorems
2026-03-28 03:33:18.1774668798
If any language accpeted by a finite automata is regular then why do we convert to a DFA every time we need to prove a language as regular?
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We don't always convert to a DFA. That is just one method to prove that a language is regular. See https://cs.stackexchange.com/q/1331/755 for a range of methods.