If every ring homomorphism $\phi: K\rightarrow S$ is injective, $K$ is field.
PS: $K$ is a commutative ring with unity, and my definition of homomorphism includes $\phi(1_{K})=1_{S}$.
My idea is to fix an arbitrary $k\in K$ and construct a homomorphism $\phi$ such that, by $\phi,$ I can find the inverse $k^{-1}$... But I don't got it.
If $K$ isn't a field then there is an $s\in K\backslash\{0\}$ without an inverse. Then the non-zero ideal $sK$ does not contain $1$, and the quotient map $\phi: K \rightarrow K/sK$ is injective.