I'm in a first course of analysis and we got this question and I wasn't able to figure it out. Any hint's are welcome.
If $f$ is lipschitz, then $\vert f(x)\vert<C(1+\vert x\vert ^λ)$ for some $C,\lambda>0$
We need to prove or disprove. First I tried some functions with bounded derivatives but all of them worked so no counterexample also my attempts for proof didn't get far.
Thank you.
Assuming $f$ is Lipschitz on the entire real line with a Lipschitz constant not necessarily equal to $\lambda > 0$, examine the ratio $$ {f(x) \over 1 + |x|^{\lambda}}. $$ as $|x| \rightarrow +\infty$. It may be easier to examine first $$ {f(x) - f(0) \over 1 + |x|^{\lambda}}. $$