If $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are continuous at $x=c$
then show that:
$h(x)=f(g(x))$ is also continuous at $x=c$. (Given that $c$ belongs to the Domain of $h$)
If $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are continuous at $x=c$
then show that:
$h(x)=f(g(x))$ is also continuous at $x=c$. (Given that $c$ belongs to the Domain of $h$)
Another counter example: let $f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1}$ and $g(x)=x-1$. Both are continuous at $x=0$, but $f \circ g$ is not. In order for your statement to be always true, then we need both functions to be continuous on $(-\infty, \infty)$ or for $f(c)=c$ and $g(c)=c$.