I'm learning about group actions from Dummit and Foote, and I have a question about the following remark that the authors make in section 4.1:
In particular, an action of [a group] $G$ on [a nonempty set] $A$ may also be viewed as a faithful action of the quotient group $G/\ker\varphi$ on $A$.
Here, $\varphi: G \rightarrow S_A$ is the permutation representation associated to the action of $G$ on $A$, i.e. $\varphi(g) = \sigma_g$ for all $g \in G$, where for each $g \in G$, the map $\sigma_g: A \rightarrow A$ is defined by $\sigma_g(a) = g \cdot a$ for all $a \in A$.
My question: What exactly is the action of $G/\ker \varphi$ on $A$?
My guess: It's the map $(\overline{g}, a) \mapsto g \cdot a$ for all $\overline{g} \in G/\ker \varphi$ and all $a \in A$....Is this correct?
Follow-up question: Assuming my guess for the above question is correct (or at least makes sense), I made the following "conjecture" which I haven't seen explicitly stated in the text yet, and was wondering if the conjecture and argument is correct:
Claim: Let $G$ be a group acting on a nonempty set $A$ (denote the action by $g \cdot a$ for all $g \in G$ and $a \in A$), and let $H$ be a normal subgroup of $G$. Then the map from $G/H \times A \rightarrow A$ given by
$$(\overline{g}, a) \mapsto g \cdot a$$ for all $\overline{g} \in G/H$ and $a \in A$ is a group action of $G/H$ on $A$.
Proof attempt: Let $\overline{g_1}, \overline{g_2} \in G/H$ and let $a \in A$.
First, we want to show that this map is well-defined: Does $\overline{g_1} = \overline{g_2}$ imply that $g_1 \cdot a = g_2 \cdot a$? Well, $\overline{g_1} = \overline{g_2} \iff g_1 g_2^{-1} \in H$. Indeed, noting that $1_G = 1_H \in H$, we have $g_1 g_2^{-1} = g_1 1_H g_2^{-1} \in H$ because $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$.
Verifying the first axiom of a group action: \begin{align*} \overline{g_1} \cdot (\overline{g_2} \cdot a) &= g_1 \cdot (g_2 \cdot a) && (\text{Defn of action of } G/H \text{ on } A) \\[3pt] &= (g_1 g_2) \cdot a && (\text{Axiom 1 applied to action of $G$ on $A$}) \\[3pt] &= \overline{g_1 g_2} \cdot a. && (\text{Defn of action of } G/H \text{ on } A) \end{align*}
Verifying the second axiom: \begin{align*} 1_{G/H} \cdot a &= \overline{1_G} \cdot a \\[3pt] &= 1_G \cdot a && (\text{Defn of action of $G/H$ on $A$}) \\[3pt] &= a. && (\text{Axiom 2 applied to action of $G$ on $A$}) \end{align*}
Is my claim and proof correct? If so, would this be considered called the "canonical" action of $G/H$ on $A$?
Update 10/12/21: Thanks to @ancientmathematician for providing a counter-example. Here's my modified conjecture (this time defined in terms of left cosets):
As before, let $G$ be a group acting on a nonempty set $A$, and denote the group action by $g \cdot a$ for all $g \in G, a \in A$. Let $H$ be a normal subgroup of $G$ and let $\overline{g} := gH$ for all $g \in G$. Consider the map $$(\overline{g},a) \mapsto g \cdot a.$$
New Claim: The above map is well-defined if and only if the kernel of the action of $G$ on $A$ is $H$.
Proof attempt:
$\implies$ direction: Suppose $H$ is the kernel of the action of $G$ on $A$. Let $g_1, g_2 \in G$, let $a \in A$, and suppose $\overline{g_1} = \overline{g_2}$. Then $g_1^{-1} g_2 \in H$, and thus $g_1^{-1} g_2$ is in the kernel of the action. Therefore,
\begin{align*}
(g_1^{-1}g_2) \cdot a &= a && (\text{By definition of being in the kernel}) \\[3pt]
g_1 \cdot ((g_1^{-1}g_2) \cdot a) &= g_1 \cdot a \\[3pt]
(g_1 g_1^{-1} g_2) \cdot a &= g_1 \cdot a && (\text{Axiom 1 of a group action}) \\[3pt]
g_2 \cdot a &= g_1 \cdot a.
\end{align*}
Since $a \in A$ was arbitrary, this shows that $\overline{g_1} = \overline{g_2} \implies g_1 \cdot a = g_2 \cdot a$ for all $a \in A$.
$\impliedby$ direction: Let $g_1, g_2 \in G$ and suppose $g_1 \cdot a = g_2 \cdot a$ for all $a \in A$. Then \begin{align*} g_1^{-1} \cdot (g_1 \cdot a) &= g_1^{-1} \cdot (g_2 \cdot a) \\[3pt] (g_1^{-1} g_1) \cdot a &= (g_1^{-1} g_2) \cdot a && (\text{Axiom 1 of a group action}) \\[3pt] 1_G \cdot a &= (g_1^{-1} g_2) \cdot a \\[3pt] a &= (g_1^{-1} g_2) \cdot a && (\text{Axiom 2 of a group action}) \end{align*}
So we have $a = (g_1^{-1} g_2) \cdot a$ for all $a \in A$, and thus $g_1^{-1} g_2$ is in the kernel of the action of $G$ on $A$; but this is just $H$, so $g_1^{-1} g_2 \in H$ which then implies $\overline{g_1} = \overline{g_2}. \quad \square$
It seems that my proofs of (1) and (2) applied to this new situation would still be valid, so I take it that this is a well-defined group action of $G/H$ on $A$ if and only if the kernel of the action of $G$ on $A$ is $H$. Do I have this correct?
Your map is not well defined.
Let $G=S_3$ acting on $A=\{1,2,3\}$ and let $H=A_3$.
Then $(12)H=(13)H$ but $(12)\cdot1\ne (13)\cdot1$.