Let $g$ be a multiplicative function from $\mathbb R^+$ to $\mathbb R^+$. If $g(x+y)\le2\cdot\max\{g(x),g(y)\}$ for all positive reals $x,y$, prove that $g$ is subadditive.
For the function $g$, being multiplicative means $g(xy)=g(x)g(y)$ for all $x,y\in\mathbb R^+$, and being subadditive means $g(x+y)\le g(x)+g(y)$ for all $x,y\in\mathbb R^+$.
Edit: My understanding:
- $g$ is multiplicative so it's a "mixture" of power functions, i.e., given any positive real $u\ne1$, there is a corresponding dense subset $S_t=\{u^r\mid r\in\mathbb Q\}$ of $\mathbb R^+$ on which $g(x)=x^t$ where $t$ is fixed such that $g(u)=u^t$.
- If the exponents of these power functions are all less than or equal to $1$ (i.e., if $g(x)\ge x$ for all $0<x\le1$ and $g(x)\le x$ for all $x>1$), then $g$ is obviously subadditive.
- If there exists a power function with exponent greater than $1$, then I can show there exist power functions with exponents arbitrarily small and arbitrarily large. Clearly the existence of a non-subadditive pair implies the existence of this power function, but I'm not sure the existence of this power function on its own is enough to reach a contradiction.
- I feel like a proof by contradiction is the way to go, but I haven't been able to construct $x',y'$ given $g(x+y)>g(x)+g(y)$ such that $x'+y'=x+y$ and $g(x+y)>2\cdot\max\{g(x'),g(y')\}$.
Progress update:
- Suppose $g(a)+g(1-a)<1$ (we lose no generality assuming $a+b=1$). Then I can show $g\left(a^2\right)+g\left(1-a^2\right)\le\bigl(f(a)+f(1-a)\bigr)^2<1$ or $g\left(\frac{2a}{1+a}\right)+g\left(1-\frac{2a}{1+a}\right)<1$. In the first case, clearly we have constructed a sum that is smaller than the original, but in the second case I'm not sure. If somehow we can repeat this process until we obtain a sum smaller than $\frac12$, we get the desired contradiction.
First, consider the following lemma.
To prove the lemma, use \eqref{0} twice to get $$ g ( x + y + z ) \le c g ( x ) + c ^ 2 g ( y ) + c ^ 2 g ( z ) $$ for all $ x , y , z \in \mathbb R ^ + $. Then, apply cyclic permutations to $ ( x , y , z ) $ in the above inequality and conclude $$ g ( y + z + x ) \le c g ( y ) + c ^ 2 g ( z ) + c ^ 2 g ( x ) $$ and $$ g ( z + x + y ) \le c g ( z ) + c ^ 2 g ( x ) + c ^ 2 g ( y ) \text . $$ Finally, add up the three inequalities to get \eqref{1}.
Back to the original problem, consider $ g : \mathbb R ^ + \to \mathbb R ^ + $ satisfying $$ g ( x y ) = g ( x ) g ( y ) \tag 2 \label 2 $$ and $$ g ( x + y ) \le 2 \max \{ g ( x ) , g ( y ) \} \tag 3 \label 3 $$ for all $ x , y \in \mathbb R ^ + $. Putting $ x = y = 1 $ in \eqref{2} and noting that $ f ( 1 ) > 0 $, we get $ g ( 1 ) = 1 $. Then, setting $ x = y = 1 $ in \eqref{3} we have $ f ( 2 ) \le 2 $.
Define the sequence $ ( c _ n ) _ { n = 0 } ^ \infty $ of positive real numbers with $ c _ 0 = 2 $ and $ c _ { n + 1 } = \sqrt { \frac { 2 c _ n ^ 2 + c _ n } 3 } $ for all nonegative integers $ n $. It's straightforward to inductively verify $ c _ n > 1 $ and $ c _ { n + 1 } < c _ n $ for all nonegative integers $ n $. Then, note that $ t \mapsto \frac { \frac 2 3 t + 1 } { \sqrt { \frac { 2 t ^ 2 + t } 3 } + 1 } $ is strictly decreasing on the interval $ [ 1 , 2 ] $, and thus for any nonnegaive integer $ n $, \begin{align*} c _ { n + 1 } - 1 & = \sqrt { \frac { 2 c _ n ^ 2 + c _ n } 3 } - 1 \\ & = \frac { \frac { 2 c _ n ^ 2 + c _ n } 3 - 1 } { \sqrt { \frac { 2 c _ n ^ 2 + c _ n } 3 } + 1 } \\ & = \frac { \frac 2 3 c _ n + 1 } { \sqrt { \frac { 2 c _ n ^ 2 + c _ n } 3 } + 1 } ( c _ n - 1 ) \\ & < \frac { \frac 2 3 \times 1 + 1 } { \sqrt { \frac { 2 \times 1 ^ 2 + 1 } 3 } + 1 } ( c _ n - 1 ) \\ & = \frac 5 6 ( c _ n - 1 ) \text , \end{align*} which implies $ c _ n - 1 \le \left ( \frac 5 6 \right ) ^ n $, and consequently $$ \lim _ { n \to \infty } c _ n = \inf _ { n = 0 } ^ \infty c _ n = 1 \text . $$
Now, letting $ y = x $ in \eqref{2} we get $$ g \left ( x ^ 2 \right ) = g ( x ) ^ 2 \tag 4 \label 4 $$ for all $ x \in \mathbb R $. Note that \eqref{3} implies \eqref{0} with $ c = c _ 0 $. Now, assume that for some nonnegative integer $ n $ we have \eqref{0} with $ c = c _ n $ and all $ x , y \in \mathbb R ^ + $, and use \eqref{2}, \eqref{4} and the above lemma to observe that \begin{align*} g ( x + y ) ^ 2 & = g \left ( ( x + y ) ^ 2 \right ) \\ & = g \left ( x ^ 2 + 2 x y + y ^ 2 \right ) \\ & \le c _ { n + 1 } ^ 2 \Bigl ( g \left ( x ^ 2 \right ) + g \left ( 2 x y \right ) + g \left ( y ^ 2 \right ) \Bigr ) \\ & = c _ { n + 1 } ^ 2 \left ( g ( x ) ^ 2 + g ( 2 ) g ( x ) g ( y ) + g ( y ) ^ 2 \right ) \\ & \le c _ { n + 1 } ^ 2 \left ( g ( x ) ^ 2 + 2 g ( x ) g ( y ) + g ( y ) ^ 2 \right ) \\ & = c _ { n + 1 } ^ 2 \bigl ( g ( x ) + g ( y ) \bigr ) ^ 2 \text , \end{align*} which implies \eqref{0} with $ c = c _ { n + 1 } $. Therefore, we inductively get for all nonnegative integers $ n $ \eqref{0} with $ c = c _ n $, and consequently with $ c = \inf _ { n = 1 } ^ \infty c _ n = 1 $, which completes the proof.