A very simple question on maths:
- If half of the UK's household wealth is owned by 10% of them, is the cut off to that 10% the mean household wealth?
2026-03-30 14:43:18.1774881798
If half of the UK's household wealth is owned by 10% of them, do we know anything about the mean?
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No. We know that the mean of the upper $10\%$ is nine times the mean of the lower $90\%$, but that is all. That also says the overall mean is $1.8$ times the mean of the lower $90\%$. We could have $9$ people with $1$ and $1$ person with $9$ for an overall mean of $1.8$ We could have $8$ people with $1$, $1$ people with $5$, and $1$ person with $13$. The mean is then $2.6$.