Let $X$ and $Y$ be subsets of a metric space. If $int\overline{X} = int\overline{Y} = \emptyset$ then $int(\overline{X\cup Y}) = \emptyset$.
I know that $int(\overline{X\cup Y}) = int(\overline{X}\cup \overline{Y})$ and so I'm trying to prove the more general statement $$ int(X) = int(Y) = \emptyset \implies int(X\cup Y) = \emptyset $$ which seems true to me but I not getting the proof.
What I tried so far is to consider an $x\in int(X\cup Y)$, so there is a open ball $B_x$ that is contained in $X\cup Y$ but it cannot be contained in $X$ or $Y$ because these have empty interior. But I don't know what to do next.
Thanks in advance for any help.
$X$ is called nowhere dense iff the interior of its closure is empty iff the complement of $X$ contains a dense and open subset iff every non-empty open subset $O$ contains a non-empty open subset $O'$ that misses $X$.
As the finite intersection of dense and open subsets is dense and open, by de Morgan, the finite union of nowhere dense sets is nowhere dense. Or using the final characterisation: first pick $O'$ to avoid $X$ and an even smaller one inside $O'$ to also avoid $Y$.