Let $L/K$ be a field extension. I came across the statement "if $a\in L$ is transcendent over $K$, then $K[X]\cong K[a]$, and thereby $K(X)\cong K(a)$".
Why is that?
Thanks in advance
Let $L/K$ be a field extension. I came across the statement "if $a\in L$ is transcendent over $K$, then $K[X]\cong K[a]$, and thereby $K(X)\cong K(a)$".
Why is that?
Thanks in advance
If two integral domains are isomorphic, so are their quotient fields.