Is this statement true or false and why ?
If $L_{1}$ is decidable and if $L_{2}$$\subseteq$$L_{1}$ then $L_{2}$ is also decidable.
I would be tempted to say yes, but i am really not sure. I am also not sure of the reasoning behind.
Thanks for your help.
Hint:
Let $L_2$ be any language.
Notice $L_2 \subseteq \Sigma^*$ (the language of all words) which is decidable!
I hope this helps ^_^