If L1 is decidable and if L2 is included in L1, is L2 also decidable?

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Is this statement true or false and why ?

If $L_{1}$ is decidable and if $L_{2}$$\subseteq$$L_{1}$ then $L_{2}$ is also decidable.

I would be tempted to say yes, but i am really not sure. I am also not sure of the reasoning behind.

Thanks for your help.

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Hint:

Let $L_2$ be any language.

Notice $L_2 \subseteq \Sigma^*$ (the language of all words) which is decidable!


I hope this helps ^_^