If you could reduce L1 to L2 then L2 would be undeciable of course. But I am wondering if you could really recude in all cases. Thanks for all kind of help
2026-04-07 14:43:05.1775572985
If L1 is undecidable and L1 is included in L2, is L2 also undecidable and why?
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No. Every language is a subset of the language containing all strings, which is trivially decidable.