Using a huge truth table, I proved the theorem below. I cannot find a more elegant proof. I tried to rewrite expressions; e.g. using the distributive laws and the laws of absorption - to no avail. Is there another proof - or any hint? I know that the issue is very basic which makes me feel quite stupid.
Theorem
If we have
- $A \Rightarrow A'$ and
- $B \Rightarrow B'$ and
- $A \lor B$,
then we have $A' \lor B'$.
P.S.: I know that the theorem is simple and might be accepted without a proof. Still, I am looking for a rigorous proof.
So you want to prove $$((A \Rightarrow A') \wedge (B \Rightarrow B')) \Rightarrow (A \vee B \Rightarrow A' \vee B')$$
You can rewrite it as: $$\begin{align} & \equiv (\neg (A \Rightarrow A') \vee \neg (B \Rightarrow B')) \vee (A \vee B \Rightarrow A' \vee B') \\ & \equiv ((A \wedge \neg A') \vee (B \wedge \neg B')) \vee ((\neg A \wedge \neg B) \vee (A' \vee B')) \\ & \equiv (A \wedge \neg A') \vee (B \wedge \neg B') \vee (\neg A \wedge \neg B) \vee A' \vee B' \end{align}$$
Now it's just a matter of using distributivity law to regroup terms and eliminate all $(p \vee \neg p) \equiv \top$ to get $\top$ in the end.