If $P\le G$ is a sylow-$p$ and $Q$ is any $p$ subgroup, then $Q\cap P = Q\cap N(P).$
I'd appreciate any help.
I have a proof from some old notes but it says that it is sufficient to prove that if $qPq^{-1}=P$, and $q\in Q,$ $q\in P$, then we have proven the proposition. This doesn't seem true.
Maybe I'm wrong.
Yet another proof: $Q \cap N_G(P)$ is a $p$-subgroup of $N_G(P)$. Now apply Sylow Theory in $N_G(P)$, telling you that $Q \cap N_G(P)$ must be contained in some Sylow $p$-subgroup of $N_G(P)$. Since $P \unlhd N_G(P)$, this Sylow $p$-subgroup must be $P$, whence $Q \cap N_G(P) \subseteq P$.