The following question was part of an exam at my university: if $R$ is a noetherian ring, then $ab=1$ implies $ba=1$ $\forall a,b\in R$.
As far as I know, the result would hold if $a$ and $b$ aren’t zero divisors. However, I don’t see why this should hold for a general noetherian ring, because $R$ being noetherian doesn’t imply that it doesn’t contain zero divisors, right?
Here is the proof by GreginGre in the language of elementary ring theory.
Let $ab=1$. Let $I_n = \{x \in R : x b^n = 0\}$. This is a left ideal, and $I_n \subseteq I_{n+1}$. Since $R$ is left Noetherian, we have $I_n = I_{n+1}$ for some $n$. Thus, $x b^n b=0$ implies $x b^n = 0$. But every element $r \in R$ has the form $x b^n$, since $r = r a^n b^n$. Thus, $rb = 0$ implies $r=0$. Since $(ba-1)b=0$, we get $ba-1=0$, and we are done.
PS: I find it quite fascinating that a finiteness condition (Noetherian) implies an algebraic implication $ab=1 \implies ba=1$. For Artinian rings see here.