I am a bit confused with the question wether $\mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{2}]$ is a Noetherian ring or not.
I would say that $\mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{2}]$ is a Noetherian ring.
Reason : $\mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{2}]$ is a finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}$-module. Hence, it is Noetherian as a $\mathbb{Z}$-module. Since every ideal of $\mathbb{Z}[\frac{1}{2}]$ is also a $\mathbb{Z}$-module, it is a Noetherian ring.
Is this correct ?
Thanks for your help.
$\Bbb Z[\frac12]$ is not a finitely generated $\Bbb Z$-module.
But $\Bbb Z[\frac12]$ is a finitely generated $\Bbb Z$-algebra. It is isomorphic to a quotient of $\Bbb Z[X]$ which is Noetherian (by the Hilbert basis theorem) and so is itself Noetherian.