If $\sum_{0}^{2n}a_r(x-2)^r=\sum_{0}^{2n}b_r(x-3)^r$ and $a_k=1$ $\forall$ $k\ge n$, then show that $b_n=\displaystyle{2n+1\choose n+1}$
My attempt is as follows:-
$$a_0+a_1(x-2)+a_2(x-2)^2+\cdots a_{2n}(x-2)^{2n}=b_0+b_1(x-3)+b_2(x-3)^2+\cdots b_{2n}(x-3)^{2n}$$
Let's see the term on R.H.S with coefficient as $b_n$
$$T_{n+1}=b_n(x-3)^n$$
Comparing the coefficients of $x^0$
$$a_0-2a_1+(-2)^2a_2+(-2)^3a_3+\cdots a_{2n}(-2)^{2n}=b_0-3b_1+(-3)^2b_2+(-3)^3b_3+\cdots+b_n(-3)^n+\cdots b_{2n}(-3)^{2n}$$
Comparing the coefficients of $x^1$
$$a_1+2a_2(-2)^1+3a_3(-2)^2\cdots 2n\cdot a_{2n}(-2)^{2n-1}=b_1+2a_2(-3)^1+3a_3(-3)^2\cdots nb_n(-3)^{n-1} \cdots (2n)a_{2n}(-3)^{2n-1}$$
Now I am not getting any way to find $b_n$ , its so mixed up in these expressions, not able to get any breakthrough. Any inputs?
Hint Derivate $n$ times and plug in $r=3$.
Let $f(x)=b_0+b_1(x-3)+b_2(x-3)^2+\cdots b_{2n}(x-3)^{2n}$. Then $$f^{(n)}(3)=n! b_n$$
Since $$f(x)=a_0+a_1(x-2)+a_2(x-2)^2+\cdots a_{2n}(x-2)^{2n}$$ you also have $$f^{(n)}{3}=n!a_n+\frac{(n+1)!}{1!}a_{n+1}+\frac{(n+2)!}{2!}a_{n+2}+...+\frac{(2n)!}{n!}a_{n+1}$$
Now make those equal and plug in $a_k=1$.