If the probability of an event $A$ is $1$, and $B$ is any event, then $A$ and $B$ are independent.
This seems intuitively true. If we know for sure that $A$ happens, this does not give information about $B$.
However, I am not able to prove it, although I think it must be quite easy to prove.
So given is that $P(A) =1$, and now we must prove that $P(B) = P(A)P(B) = P(A \cap B)$ and it suffices to show that $P(A \cap B) \geq P(B)$, since $A \cap B \subseteq B$
$$P(A)P(B)=1 \times P(B)=P(B)=P(A\cap B)+P(A^c \cap B) = P(A\cap B)+0=P(A\cap B)$$