If the roots of the equation $p(q-r)x^2+q(r-p)x+r(p-q)=0$ are equal, show that $$\dfrac {1}{p}+\dfrac {1}{r}=\dfrac {2}{q}$$
My Attempt: $$p(q-r)x^2+q(r-p)x+r(p-q)=0$$ Comapring with $ax^2+bx+c=0$, we get: $$a=p(q-r)$$ $$b=q(r-p)$$ $$c=r(p-q)$$. Since the roots are equal: $$b^2-4ac=0$$ $$(q(r-p))^2-4p(q-r)r(p-q)=0$$ Multipying and simplfying a bit; $$q^2r^2-2pq^2r+p^2q^2-4p^2qr+4pq^2r+4p^2r^2-4pr^2q=0$$.
Dividing by $p^2q^2r^2$
$$=\frac{1}{p^2} +\frac{2}{pr}+\frac{1}{r^2}-\frac{4}{qr}+\frac{4}{q^2}-\frac{4}{pq}$$ $$=\Bigl(\frac{1}{p}\Bigl)^2+\Bigl(\frac{-2}{q}\Bigl)^2+\Bigl(\frac{1}{r}\Bigl)^2$$ $$2\Bigl( \frac{1}{p}\Bigl)\Bigl(\frac{1}{r}\Bigl)+2\Bigl(\frac{1}{p}\Bigl)\Bigl(\frac{-2}{q}\Bigl)$$ $$+2\Bigl(\frac{1}{r}\Bigl)\Bigl(\frac{-2}{q}\Bigl)$$
$$=\Bigl(\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{r}-\frac{2}{q}\Bigl)^2$$ You can carry on