Three events $A, B, C$ satisfy:
$P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B)$
$P(B \cap C) = P(B) \cdot P(C)$
$P(A \cap C) = P(A) \cdot P(C)$.
Does this imply $P(A \cap B \cap C) = P(A) \cdot P(B) \cdot P(C)$?
How to prove that it's true or not?
2026-03-27 13:25:40.1774617940
If three events are pairwise independent, are they independent "collectively"?
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