If $Y$ and $X$ are independent uniform (-1,1) random variables, I would like to derive the distribution of $W=X^2+Y^2$.
At first I thought that I could use the CDF technique and a geometric argument, that is divide the area of a circle with radius $\sqrt{w}$, $0<w<2$ by $4$, the area of the $2$ by $2$ square that constitutes the support of $X$ and $Y$.
The problem with that approach is that the resulting pdf:
$$f_W (w)=\begin{cases} \pi /4,& 0<w<2 \\ 0, & \text{elsewhere} \end{cases} $$
does not integrate to $1$.
Could you please help me understand where I went wrong here and how to arrive at the right answer?
Thank you in advance.

Your geometric approach will work. Draw a picture. If $0\lt w\le 1$, we get a circle that if fully inside the square on which the joint density "lives," and as you saw things are straightforward.
If $1\lt w\lt 2$, we need to find the area of the part $D$ of the square that is in the disk of radius $\sqrt{w}$. Join the centre of the circle to the $8$ points where the circle meets the sides of the square. This divides our region $D$ into $8$ parts, $4$ isosceles triangles and $4$ circular sectors.
We find the combined area of these and divide by $4$, or equivalently find the area of a triangle and a circular sector, and add.
To find the area of a triangle, let us for example find the two places where $x^2+y^2=w$ meets the line $x=1$. This is at $y=\pm \sqrt{w-1}$. So the base of the triangle is $2\sqrt{w-1}$, and therefore the area is $\sqrt{w-1}$.
The central angle of each triangle is $2\arctan(\sqrt{w-1})$, and therefore the angle of each of the $4$ circular sectors is $\frac{\pi}{2}-\arctan(\sqrt{w-1})$. For the area, divide by $2$.