If $X\sim U(0,1)$ then $Y=-\frac{1}{\lambda }\ln(1-X)\sim Exp(\lambda )$
Here is my solution : If $X\sim U(0,1)$ then $f(x)=1$ where $0\leq x\leq 1$.
$0<x\Rightarrow -x\leq 0\Rightarrow 1-x\leq 1\Rightarrow \ln (1-x)\leq 0\Rightarrow 0<-\frac{1}{\lambda }\ln (1-x)\Rightarrow y>0$
$F(y)=P(Y\leq y)=P(-\frac{1}{\lambda }\ln (1-X)\leq y)=P(X\leq 1-e^{-\lambda y})=\int_{0}^{1-e^{-\lambda y}}dx=1-e^{-\lambda y}$
From here,
$$\begin{cases} f(y)=\frac{dF(y)}{dy}=\lambda e^{-\lambda y}& \text{ if } y>0 \\ 0& \text{otherwise } \end{cases}$$
But I am confused the interval of uniform distribution. Should I take the interval $0<x<1$ or $0\leq x\leq 1$? If I take $0\leq x\leq 1$ then $y\geq 0$ but from definiton y can not be $0$ when $f(y)=\lambda e^{-\lambda y}$. Any help will be appreciated.

Note that the density of an absolutely continuous random variable is only defined up to almost-everywhere equivalence. In particular, if you redefine the value of the density in a finite number of points, it will still be a density of the same random variable / distribution. Accordingly, $f = 1_{(0,1)}$ and $f = 1_{[0,1]}$ both do the job for $X \sim U(0,1)$. It makes sense to choose $f = 1_{(0,1)}$ here though, as the transformation $g(x):= -\frac{1}{\lambda}\ln(1-x)$ only takes finite values on $(0,1)$. Again, what value you choose at $y = 0$ for the resulting density does not matter.