In a Euclidean Domain, $D$, if we mod out by an irreducible, $p$, we get the field $D/(p)$. I can see that this follows since we are going to be able to write $1$ as a linear combination of $p$ and some $q \in D$. Same reason $\mathbb Z/(5)$ is a field.
Now suppose we are not in a Euclidean Domain. Suppose we just have a commutative ring with identity, $R$.
Question $1$: Is the ideal generated by an irreducible element $p$ always maximal?
If so, then if we mod out by $p$, since $(p)$ is maximal, then $R/(p)$ is a field.
Assuming question one is true:
Question $2$: What's the reasoning behind $R/(p)$ being a field? Will we be able to write $1$ as a linear combination of $p$ and some $q$ in a non-Euclidean Domain?
The result that $p$ irreducible in $R$ implies $(p)$ maximal holds in the more general case of PIDs. To see this, suppose $p$ is an irreducible, and that $(p)\subset I$ for some ideal $I$ in $R$. Since $R$ is a PID, $I=(k)$ for some $k$. In particular, $p\in(k)$, so $kr=p$ for some $r\in R$. Since $p$ is irreducible, either $k$ or $r$ is a unit, leading to the cases $(k)=R$ and $(k)=(p)$ respectively.
This is not true in more general rings. For example, $X$ is irreducible in $\Bbb{Z}[X]$, but $(X)$ it is not maximal as $(X)\subsetneq (2,X)\subsetneq \Bbb{Z}[X]$. (This works because $\Bbb{Z}[X]$ is not a PID, although it is a UFD.)