In the probability ambient we work with a measure space $(\Omega, \mathscr{F}, \mathbb{P})$ that is of finite measure (i.e. $\mathbb{P}(\Omega)<+\infty$).
I'm interest to understad all the relation between uniform integrable and $L^p$-bounded family.
Just for completeness i remember the main definitions:
UI:A family $(X_i)_{i \in \mathscr{I}}$ is called UI if
$ \sup_{i\in \mathscr{I}}\mathbb{E}(|X_i|\chi(|X_i|\geq K)) \to 0$ as $K\to+\infty$
$\mathbf{L^p}$-bounded :A family $(X_i)_{i \in \mathscr{I}}$ is called $L^p$-bounded if
$$\sup_{i\in \mathscr{I}}\mathbb{E}(|X_i|^p) < +\infty$$
So i know that:
- UI implies $L^1$-bounded
- $L^1$-bounded not implies UI
- $L^p$-bounded implies UI when p>1 My question is: Is true the inverse implication of 3. ?
No, if $\mathscr{F}$ is uniformly integrable there may not exist a $p>1$ for which $\mathscr{F}$ is $L^p$ bounded. For example, if for all functions $f\in\mathscr{F}$ we have
$$\int_\Omega |f|\ln(1+|f|) \leq C $$
Then the family $\mathscr{F}$ is uniformly integrable.
In general, if $G:[0,\infty)\to [0,\infty)$ is increasing and grows superlinearly and we have $\int_\Omega G(|f|) \leq C$ for all $f\in\mathscr{F}$, then $\mathscr{F}$ is uniformly integrable, and the converse is also true: uniform integrability implies the existence of such a $G$. For a proof, see Bogachev Measure Theory, Theorem 4.5.9.