As an example, $J,K,3,K$, or $K,3,4,K$, or $K,J,A,2$ are allowed, but not $K,K,J,3$ or $4,10,K,K$.
I was thinking that maybe I could approach this question by counting the number of ways such that a rank does occur twice in a row, divide this by $\frac{52!}{48!}$ and subtract the result by 1 but I am unsure.
Any help would be very much appreciated.
Thank you in advance.
Well, the first card we draw does not depend on any previous draw, so we just assign it a $\frac{52}{52}$ probability. The second draw cannot be the same rank as the previous, and we still have $51-3=48$ cards left in the deck that do not have the previous rank, so we assign our second draw a $\frac{48}{51}$ probability.
Now the difficult part:
Suppose our first three draws were $K,Q,K$ (for example). The probability of getting the same card on our third draw as we did on our first draw is $\frac{3}{50}$. Now, for the fourth draw, there are only $49-2=47$ cards left in the deck that are not Kings, so we assign our fourth draw to be $\frac{47}{49}$.
Now suppose our first three draws were $K,Q,J$ (for example). The probability of not getting the same card on our third draw as we did on our first is $\frac{44}{50}$ (since there are still $50-3-3=44$ cards left in the deck that are not Queens or Kings). For the final draw, there are $49-3=46$ cards still left in our deck that are not Jacks, so we assign this probability to be $\frac{46}{49}$.
If we combine these two cases in general, then our ultimate probaility becomes:
$\frac{52}{52}\cdot \frac{48}{51}\cdot \frac{3}{50}\cdot\frac{47}{49}+\frac{52}{52}\cdot \frac{48}{51}\cdot \frac{44}{50}\cdot\frac{46}{49}=\frac{3464}{4165}\approx83.17\%$