The answer is true for integral domains, but I wonder if it is also true for any general field. Thanks.
2026-04-30 02:59:43.1777517983
In a given field $F$, if $ab=0$, is it true that at least $a$ or $b$ has to be zero?
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Without loss of generality, assume ${a\neq 0}$. Then ${a}$ has a multiplicative inverse. Multiply both left hand sides by this multiplicative inverse:
$${\Rightarrow a^{-1}\left(ab\right)=0}$$ $${\Rightarrow b=0}$$
So indeed, at least one of the elements must be $0$.