In a hand of 13 cards, what is the probability that all cards have different values

1.7k Views Asked by At

I'm going to go through my thoughts, tell me if I'm right. There are $52\choose 13$ different hands with 13 cards. Each value has to appear once with 4 suits for each so there are $ 4^{13}$ different hands with each number once. So i conclude that the probability is $\frac{4^{13}}{52\choose13} \approx 1.1\times 10^{-4}$. I am really bad a probability so any help and/or tips on approaching problems at first year university level with would be appreciated (I can only find very basic or high level probability stuff with no intermediate level)

1

There are 1 best solutions below

1
On BEST ANSWER

You appear to have have a correct method to compute the probability (everything was fine except that you wrote $54$ when you presumably meant to write $52$). I will show another way to derive the same result.

Suppose you fill the hand one card at a time. When you pick the first card from the deck, there are $52$ cards in the deck and any of them can be drawn. That is, you have a $\frac{52}{52}$ chance that the first card you draw will be "correct."

But for the next card, there are only $48$ remaining cards that you can draw without duplicating the rank of he card already in your hand, and there are $51$ cards to draw from. So you have a $\frac{48}{51}$ chance that the second card is also "correct," given that the previous card was.

The chance is only $\frac{44}{50}$ that the third card will be "correct," given that the previous cards were. Each time you draw a card, the number of "correct" possibilities for the next draw goes down by $4,$ because you removed one card and because the other three cards of the rank you just drew also become "incorrect" for all subsequent draws.

Finally you have $40$ cards in the deck just before drawing the thirteenth card, but only $4$ of them are "correct," giving you a $\frac{4}{40}$ probability.

So the probability to draw thirteen cards in a row without getting any two of the same rank is

\begin{align} \frac{52}{52}\cdot&\frac{48}{51}\cdot\frac{44}{50}\cdot\frac{40}{49}\cdot\frac{36}{48}\cdot\frac{32}{47}\cdot\frac{28}{46}\cdot\frac{24}{45}\cdot\frac{20}{44}\cdot\frac{16}{43}\cdot\frac{12}{42}\cdot\frac{8}{41}\cdot\frac{4}{40} \\[0.7ex] &= \frac{(4\cdot13)(4\cdot12)(4\cdot11)(4\cdot10)(4\cdot9)(4\cdot8)(4\cdot7)(4\cdot6)(4\cdot5)(4\cdot4)(4\cdot3)(4\cdot2)(4\cdot1)}{52\cdot51\cdot50\cdot49\cdot48\cdot47\cdot46\cdot45\cdot44\cdot43\cdot42\cdot41\cdot40} \\ &= \frac{4^{13} \cdot 13!}{52! / 39!} \\ &= \frac{4^{13}}{\left(\frac{52!}{13!39!}\right)} \\ &= \frac{4^{13}}{\binom{52}{13}}. \end{align}

I think your way is neater, don't you agree?