I've recently been thinking about this problem and I think I solved it correctly. However, I was using a rather peculiar method with lots of algebra. I'll post my solution as an answer below. Is there a better (or just different) way of solving this problem?
Problem
In a tournament $n$ players take part in a series of duels in which both players have equal chances of winning. After each duel the winner plays against the player, that hasn't played for the longest time (or in the beginning someone that hasn't played yet). The first player to beat all other players in consecutive duels wins the tournament. What is the probability that a player wins the tournament given that he takes part in the first duel?
An example with $n=3$
Alice and Bob start and Colin sits out first. Alice beats Bob, Colin beats Alice, Bob beats Colin, Bob beats Alice. Bob wins the tournament.
Here Alice, Bob and Colin had winning probabilities $\frac{5}{14}$, $\frac{5}{14}$, $\frac{4}{14}$ respectively.
EDIT: Only 3 days left for the bounty. We don't want those points to disappear into nirvana, do we? :(


Here's is an answer using a slightly different approach.
We denote the $n$ players with $player_1$ to $player_n$ according to the order of their duels. So the first duel is between $player_1$ and $player_2$, the next duel is the winner of the first duel with $player_3$ until finally $player_n$ has his chance to win the game.
Let's denote with $p_k$ the probability that the $k$-th player win's, i.e. he is the first who wins $n-1$ consecutive duels against all other players.
For $player_1$ and $player_2$ the decision tree is symmetric, so we have $p_1=p_2$.
The equation in $(2)$ tells us, that $p_{k}$ is essentially equal to $p_{k+1}$ with the advantage, that a run of $n-1$ consecutive duels was already done by $player_k$. Thereby correspond $n-1$ consecutive duels to the factor $\frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$ and this path of length $n-1$ in the binary decision tree is weighted with the sum of all probabilities of the nodes in the tree where $player_{k+1}$ resides. This corresponds to the multiplication with $p_{k+1}$.
Now substituting $(4)$ and $(5)$ in $(3)$ gives
If we use $q_n:=1+\frac{1}{2^{n-1}}$ as shorthand we get after some simplifications
Since $p_k=q_n^{n-k}p_n$ we finally get for $n\geq 2$
Note: Setting $k=2$ in $(6)$ gives the probability for $player_1$ resp. $player_2$ to win, which corresponds to the value $p(n)$ in the answer from alex.