I need some helps in terms of explanations for the answer for an exercise I’ve got in my lecture
The question is how many ways you can distribute $4$ different packages among $8$ people A, B,..., H, such that everyone gets $2$ packages or none.
The professor has given the answer, which is $\binom{8}{2}\binom{4}{2} = 28 \cdot 6$.
$\binom{4}{2}$, which is fine since we have to choose $2$ out of $4$ packages for distribution.
The part I can’t understand is why we have to choose specifically $2$ people but not $1$? The question does not imply that $2$ people should be chosen but instead, stated that, ”everyone.”
Thanks for your help in advance :):)
In this context, "everyone" means "each one".
Since there are $4$ packages, and each person gets either $2$ packages or none, it follows that exactly $2$ people will get packages, each of them getting $2$ packages.
To count the number of ways to distribute the packages . . .
First choose the $2$ people who will be given packages: $\binom{8}{2}$ choices.
Next choose $2$ packages to give to the first (order them arbitrarily) of the two chosen people: $\binom{4}{2}$ choices.
Give the remaining two packages to the second person.
With those choices, the distribution is complete.
By the multiplication rule, the number of possible distributions is $\binom{8}{2}\binom{4}{2}$.