WHY are we always given $\epsilon > 0$ first, then solving for a $\delta>0$? This is in the limit definition.
I want to ask:
Can we say "given $\delta>0$, there exists $\epsilon>0$"? Since we can always solve for one given the other.
I found three counterexamples, but I don't understand them:
Let $f(x) = \sin x$, let $L$ and $\delta$ be arbitrary real numbers. Then $\epsilon = |L| + 2$ satisfies your definition. (from post)
Q: What's wrong with setting $\epsilon = |L| + 2$? It's big, but it's not wrong!
Let $f(x) = 1/x$, and let $a = 1$. The definition fails for $\delta \ge 1$, since for any $\epsilon$ we can choose $x=1/(L+\epsilon)$ if $L+\epsilon > 1$, so that $f(x)-L \ge \epsilon$. (from post)
Q: What are they saying here? At $x=1$, the definition fails for $\epsilon \ge 1$ too! The problem is not $\delta$. The problem is the function is undefined for $x \le 0$.
Counterexample: $\lim\limits_{x \to 0} f(x) = L$
$f(x) = \begin{cases} \sin \frac{1}{x}, & x \ne 0 \\ 0, & x = 0 \end{cases}$
Given any $\delta > 0$, we can find $\epsilon > 0$ such that $|f(x) - L| < \epsilon$ whenever $|x| < \delta$. For instance, set $\epsilon = 2$; then any choice of $L \in (-1,1)$ will satisfy this "reversed" situation. (from post)
Q: I don't see how setting $\epsilon = 2$ violates any definition. I mean, we did find a $\epsilon$ for a given $\delta$.
Thanks all for the pouring answers, I'll get back to each one personally. If I did not choose an answer, that means all submissions are still welcomed! The best answer will be chosen based on # of upvotes (50%) and if I understood it and agree it's the best (50%).